SEARCH SITE

VIRGINIA LAW PORTAL

SEARCHABLE DATABASES

ACROSS SESSIONS

Developed and maintained by the Division of Legislative Automated Systems.

2021 SESSION

21101066D
SENATE BILL NO. 1138
Offered January 13, 2021
Prefiled January 3, 2021
A BILL to amend and reenact §§ 16.1-69.55, 17.1-805, 18.2-52.1, 18.2-346.1, 19.2-8, 19.2-299, 19.2-310.2, 19.2-392.02, as it is currently effective and as it shall become effective, 32.1-291.16, 54.1-2982, 54.1-2983, and 57-48 of the Code of Virginia and to repeal §§ 18.2-62, 18.2-67.4:1, and 32.1-289.2 of the Code of Virginia, relating to sexually transmitted infections; infected sexual battery; repeal.
----------
Patrons-- Locke, McClellan and Surovell; Delegate: Carr
----------
Referred to Committee on the Judiciary
----------

Be it enacted by the General Assembly of Virginia:

1. That §§ 16.1-69.55, 17.1-805, 18.2-52.1, 18.2-346.1, 19.2-8, 19.2-299, 19.2-310.2, 19.2-392.02, as it is currently effective and as it shall become effective, 32.1-291.16, 54.1-2982, 54.1-2983, and 57-48 of the Code of Virginia are amended and reenacted as follows:

§ 16.1-69.55. Retention of case records; limitations on enforcement of judgments; extensions.

A. Criminal and traffic infraction proceedings:

1. In misdemeanor and traffic infraction cases, except misdemeanor cases under § 16.1-253.2, 18.2-57.2, or 18.2-60.4, all documents shall be retained for 10 years, including cases sealed in expungement proceedings under § 19.2-392.2. In misdemeanor cases under § 16.1-253.2, 18.2-57.2, or 18.2-60.4, all documents shall be retained for 20 years. In misdemeanor cases under §§ 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-346, 18.2-347, 18.2-348, 18.2-349, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.01, 18.2-374, 18.2-386.1, 18.2-387, and 18.2-387.1, and former § 18.2-67.4:1, all documents shall be retained for 50 years. Documents in misdemeanor and traffic infraction cases for which an appeal has been made shall be returned to and filed with the clerk of the appropriate circuit court pursuant to § 16.1-135;

2. In felony cases that are certified to the grand jury, all documents shall be certified to the clerk of the appropriate circuit court pursuant to §§ 19.2-186 and 19.2-190. All other felony case documents shall be handled as provided in subdivision 1;

3. Dockets and indices shall be retained for 10 years.

B. Civil proceedings:

1. All documents in civil proceedings in district court that are dismissed, including dismissal under § 8.01-335, shall be retained until completion of the Commonwealth's audit of the court records. Notwithstanding § 8.01-275.1, the clerks of the district courts may destroy documents in civil proceedings in which no service of process is had 24 months after the last return date;

2. In civil actions that result in a judgment, all documents in the possession of the general district court shall be retained for 10 years and, unless sooner satisfied, the judgment shall remain in force for a period of 10 years;

3. In civil cases that are appealed to the circuit court pursuant to § 16.1-112, all documents pertaining thereto shall be transferred to the circuit court in accordance with those sections;

4. The limitations on enforcement of general district court judgments provided in § 16.1-94.1 shall not apply if the plaintiff, prior to the expiration of that period for enforcement, pays the circuit court docketing and indexing fees on judgments from other courts together with any other required filing fees and dockets the judgment in the circuit court having jurisdiction in the same geographic area as the general district court. However, a judgment debtor wishing to discharge a judgment pursuant to the provisions of § 8.01-456, when the judgment creditor cannot be located, may, prior to the expiration of that period for enforcement, pay the circuit court docketing and indexing fees on judgments from other courts together with any other required filing fees and docket the judgment in the circuit court having jurisdiction in the same geographic area as the general district court. After the expiration of the period provided in § 16.1-94.1, executions on such docketed civil judgments may issue from the general district court wherein the judgment was obtained upon the filing in the general district court of an abstract from the circuit court. In all other respects, the docketing of a general district court judgment in a circuit court confers upon such judgment the same status as if the judgment were a circuit court judgment;

5. Dockets for civil cases shall be retained for 10 years;

6. Indices in civil cases shall be retained for 10 years.

C. Juvenile and domestic relations district court proceedings:

1. In adult criminal cases, all records shall be retained as provided in subdivision A 1;

2. In juvenile cases, all documents and indices shall be governed by the provisions of § 16.1-306;

3. In all cases involving support arising under Title 16.1, 20, or 63.2, all documents and indices shall be retained until the last juvenile involved, if any, has reached 19 years of age and 10 years have elapsed from either dismissal or termination of the case by court order or by operation of law. Financial records in connection with such cases shall be subject to the provisions of § 16.1-69.56;

4. In all cases involving sexually violent offenses, as defined in § 37.2-900, and in all misdemeanor cases under §§ 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-346, 18.2-347, 18.2-348, 18.2-349, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.01, 18.2-374, 18.2-386.1, 18.2-387, and 18.2-387.1, and former § 18.2-67.4:1, all documents shall be retained for 50 years;

5. In cases transferred to circuit court for trial as an adult or appealed to circuit court, all documents pertaining thereto shall be transferred to circuit court;

6. All dockets in juvenile cases shall be governed by the provisions of subsection F of § 16.1-306.

D. At the direction of the chief judge of a district court, the clerk of that court may cause any or all papers or documents pertaining to civil and criminal cases that have been ended to be destroyed if such records, papers, or documents will no longer have administrative, fiscal, historical, or legal value to warrant continued retention, provided such records, papers, or documents have been microfilmed or converted to an electronic format. Such microfilm and microphotographic processes and equipment shall meet state archival microfilm standards pursuant to § 42.1-82, or such electronic format shall follow state electronic records guidelines, and such records, papers, or documents so converted shall be placed in conveniently accessible files and provisions made for examining and using the same. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the documents for misdemeanor cases under §§ 16.1-253.2, 18.2-57.2, 18.2-60.4, 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-346, 18.2-347, 18.2-348, 18.2-349, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.01, 18.2-374, 18.2-386.1, 18.2-387, and 18.2-387.1, and former § 18.2-67.4:1 which shall be retained as provided in subsection A.

§ 17.1-805. Adoption of initial discretionary sentencing guideline midpoints.

A. The Commission shall adopt an initial set of discretionary felony sentencing guidelines which shall become effective on January 1, 1995. The initial recommended sentencing range for each felony offense shall be determined first, by computing the actual time-served distribution for similarly situated offenders, in terms of their conviction offense and prior criminal history, released from incarceration during the base period of calendar years 1988 through 1992, increased by 13.4 percent, and second, by eliminating from this range the upper and lower quartiles. The midpoint of each initial recommended sentencing range shall be the median time served for the middle two quartiles and subject to the following additional enhancements:

1. The midpoint of the initial recommended sentencing range for first degree murder, second degree murder, rape in violation of § 18.2-61, forcible sodomy, object sexual penetration, and aggravated sexual battery shall be further increased by (i) 125 percent in cases in which the defendant has no previous conviction of a violent felony offense; (ii) 300 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum punishment of less than 40 years; or (iii) 500 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum punishment of 40 years or more, except that the recommended sentence for a defendant convicted of first degree murder who has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 40 years or more shall be imprisonment for life;

2. The midpoint of the initial recommended sentencing range for voluntary manslaughter, robbery, aggravated malicious wounding, malicious wounding, and any burglary of a dwelling house or statutory burglary of a dwelling house or any burglary committed while armed with a deadly weapon or any statutory burglary committed while armed with a deadly weapon shall be further increased by (i) 100 percent in cases in which the defendant has no previous conviction of a violent felony offense, (ii) 300 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of less than 40 years, or (iii) 500 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 40 years or more;

3. The midpoint of the initial recommended sentencing range for manufacturing, selling, giving, or distributing, or possessing with the intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute a Schedule I or II controlled substance, shall be increased by (i) 200 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum punishment of less than 40 years or (ii) 400 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 40 years or more; and

4. The midpoint of the initial recommended sentencing range for felony offenses not specified in subdivision 1, 2, or 3 shall be increased by 100 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum punishment of less than 40 years and by 300 percent in cases in which the defendant has previously been convicted of a violent felony offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 40 years or more.

B. For purposes of this chapter, previous convictions shall include prior adult convictions and juvenile convictions and adjudications of delinquency based on an offense which would have been at the time of conviction a felony if committed by an adult under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or its territories.

C. For purposes of this chapter, violent felony offenses shall include any felony violation of § 16.1-253.2; solicitation to commit murder under § 18.2-29; any violation of § 18.2-31, 18.2-32, 18.2-32.1, 18.2-32.2, 18.2-33, or 18.2-35; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-36.1; any violation of § 18.2-40 or 18.2-41; any violation of clause (c) (i) or (ii) of subsection B of § 18.2-46.3; any violation of § 18.2-46.5, 18.2-46.6, or 18.2-46.7; any Class 5 felony violation of § 18.2-47; any felony violation of § 18.2-48, 18.2-48.1, or 18.2-49; any violation of § 18.2-51, 18.2-51.1, 18.2-51.2, 18.2-51.3, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-51.6, 18.2-52, 18.2-52.1, 18.2-53, 18.2-53.1, 18.2-54.1, 18.2-54.2, or 18.2-55; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-57; any felony violation of § 18.2-57.2; any violation of § 18.2-58 or 18.2-58.1; any felony violation of § 18.2-60.1, 18.2-60.3, or 18.2-60.4; any violation of § 18.2-61, 18.2-64.1, 18.2-67.1, 18.2-67.2, former § 18.2-67.2:1, 18.2-67.3, 18.2-67.5, or 18.2-67.5:1 involving a third conviction of either sexual battery in violation of § 18.2-67.4 or attempted sexual battery in violation of subsection C of § 18.2-67.5; any Class 4 felony violation of § 18.2-63; any violation of subsection A of § 18.2-67.4:1; any violation of subsection A of § 18.2-77; any Class 3 felony violation of § 18.2-79; any Class 3 felony violation of § 18.2-80; any violation of § 18.2-85, 18.2-89, 18.2-90, 18.2-91, 18.2-92, or 18.2-93; any felony violation of § 18.2-152.7; any Class 4 felony violation of § 18.2-153; any Class 4 felony violation of § 18.2-154; any Class 4 felony violation of § 18.2-155; any felony violation of § 18.2-162; any violation of § 18.2-279 involving an occupied dwelling; any felony violation of subsection A or B of § 18.2-280; any violation of § 18.2-281; any felony violation of subsection A of § 18.2-282; any felony violation of § 18.2-282.1; any violation of § 18.2-286.1, 18.2-287.2, 18.2-289, or 18.2-290; any violation of subsection A of § 18.2-300; any felony violation of subsection C of § 18.2-308.1 or § 18.2-308.2; any violation of § 18.2-308.2:1 or subsection M or N of § 18.2-308.2:2; any violation of § 18.2-308.3 or 18.2-312; any felony violation of § 18.2-346, 18.2-348, or 18.2-349; any violation of § 18.2-355, 18.2-356, 18.2-357, or 18.2-357.1; any violation of former § 18.2-358; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-361; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-366; any violation of § 18.2-368, 18.2-370, or 18.2-370.1; any violation of subsection A of § 18.2-371.1; any felony violation of § 18.2-369 resulting in serious bodily injury or disease; any violation of § 18.2-374.1; any felony violation of § 18.2-374.1:1; any violation of § 18.2-374.3 or 18.2-374.4; any second or subsequent offense under §§ 18.2-379 and 18.2-381; any felony violation of § 18.2-405 or 18.2-406; any violation of § 18.2-408, 18.2-413, 18.2-414, 18.2-423, 18.2-423.01, 18.2-423.1, 18.2-423.2, or 18.2-433.2; any felony violation of § 18.2-460, 18.2-474.1, or 18.2-477.1; any violation of § 18.2-477, 18.2-478, 18.2-480, 18.2-481, or 18.2-485; any violation of § 37.2-917; any violation of § 52-48; any violation of § 53.1-203; any conspiracy or attempt to commit any offense specified in this subsection, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or its territories.

§ 18.2-52.1. Possession of infectious biological substances or radiological agents; penalties.

A. Any person who possesses, with the intent thereby to injure another, an infectious biological substance or radiological agent is guilty of a Class 5 felony.

B. Any person who (i) destroys or damages, or attempts to destroy or damage, any facility, equipment or material involved in the sale, manufacturing, storage or distribution of an infectious biological substance or radiological agent, with the intent to injure another by releasing the substance, or (ii) manufactures, sells, gives, distributes or uses an infectious biological substance or radiological agent with the intent to injure another is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

C. Any person who maliciously and intentionally causes any other person bodily injury by means of an infectious biological substance or radiological agent is guilty of a felony and shall be punished by confinement in a state correctional facility for a period of not less than five years nor more than 30 years.

An "infectious biological substance" includes any bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, or rickettsiae capable of causing death or serious bodily injury. This definition shall not include the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as defined in § 18.2-67.4:1 or any other related virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), syphilis, or hepatitis B.

A "radiological agent" includes any substance able to release radiation at levels that are capable of causing death or serious bodily injury.

§ 18.2-346.1. Testing of convicted prostitutes and injection drug users for infection with human immunodeficiency viruses and hepatitis C.

A. As soon as practicable following conviction of any person for violation of § 18.2-346 or 18.2-361, or any violation of Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) or 1.1 (§ 18.2-265.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 involving the possession, sale, or use of a controlled substance in a form amenable to intravenous use; or the possession, sale, or use of hypodermic syringes, needles, or other objects designed or intended for use in parenterally injecting controlled substances into the human body, such person shall be required provided the option to submit to testing for infection with human immunodeficiency viruses and hepatitis C a sexually transmitted infection. The convicted person shall receive counseling from personnel of the Department of Health concerning (i) the meaning of the test, (ii) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and hepatitis C sexually transmitted infections, and (iii) the transmission and prevention of infection with human immunodeficiency viruses and hepatitis C sexually transmitted infections.

B. Tests for human immunodeficiency viruses shall be conducted to confirm any initial positive test results before any test result shall be determined to be positive for infection. Any tests performed pursuant to this section shall be consistent with current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommendations. The results of such test for a sexually transmitted infection shall be confidential as provided in § 32.1-36.1 and shall be disclosed to the person who is the subject of the test and to the Department of Health as required by § 32.1-36. The Department shall conduct surveillance and investigation in accordance with the requirements of § 32.1-39.

C. Upon receiving a report of a positive test for hepatitis C, the State Health Commissioner may share protected health information relating to such positive test with relevant sheriffs' offices, the state police, local police departments, adult or youth correctional facilities, salaried or volunteer firefighters, paramedics or emergency medical technicians, officers of the court, and regional or local jails (i) to the extent necessary to advise exposed individuals of the risk of infection and to enable exposed individuals to seek appropriate testing and treatment, and (ii) as may be needed to prevent and control disease and is deemed necessary to prevent serious harm and serious threats to the health and safety of individuals and the public.

The disclosed protected health information shall be held confidential; no person to whom such information is disclosed shall redisclose or otherwise reveal the protected health information without first obtaining the specific authorization from the individual who was the subject of the test for such redisclosure.

Such protected health information shall only be used to protect the health and safety of individuals and the public in conformance with the regulations concerning patient privacy promulgated by the federal Department of Health and Human Services, as such regulations may be amended.

D. The results of the tests shall not be admissible in any criminal proceeding related to prostitution or drug use.

The cost of the tests shall be paid by the Commonwealth and taxed as part of the cost of such criminal proceedings.

§ 19.2-8. Limitation of prosecutions.

A prosecution for a misdemeanor, or any pecuniary fine, forfeiture, penalty or amercement, shall be commenced within one year next after there was cause therefor, except that a prosecution for petit larceny may be commenced within five years, and for an attempt to produce abortion, within two years after commission of the offense.

A prosecution for any misdemeanor violation of § 54.1-3904 shall be commenced within two years of the discovery of the offense.

A prosecution for violation of laws governing the placement of children for adoption without a license pursuant to § 63.2-1701 shall be commenced within one year from the date of the filing of the petition for adoption.

A prosecution for making a false statement or representation of a material fact knowing it to be false or knowingly failing to disclose a material fact, to obtain or increase any benefit or other payment under the Virginia Unemployment Compensation Act (§ 60.2-100 et seq.) shall be commenced within three years next after the commission of the offense.

A prosecution for any violation of § 10.1-1320, 62.1-44.32 (b), 62.1-194.1, or Article 11 (§ 62.1-44.34:14 et seq.) of Chapter 3.1 of Title 62.1 that involves the discharge, dumping or emission of any toxic substance as defined in § 32.1-239 shall be commenced within three years next after the commission of the offense.

Prosecution of Building Code violations under § 36-106 shall commence within one year of discovery of the offense by the building official, provided that such discovery occurs within two years of the date of initial occupancy or use after construction of the building or structure, or the issuance of a certificate of use and occupancy for the building or structure, whichever is later. However, prosecutions under § 36-106 relating to the maintenance of existing buildings or structures as contained in the Uniform Statewide Building Code shall commence within one year of the issuance of a notice of violation for the offense by the building official.

Prosecution of any misdemeanor violation of § 54.1-111 shall commence within one year of the discovery of the offense by the complainant, but in no case later than five years from occurrence of the offense.

Prosecution of any misdemeanor violation of any professional licensure requirement imposed by a locality shall commence within one year of the discovery of the offense by the complainant, but in no case later than five years from occurrence of the offense.

Prosecution of nonfelonious offenses which constitute malfeasance in office shall commence within two years next after the commission of the offense.

Prosecution for a violation for which a penalty is provided for by § 55.1-1989 shall commence within three years next after the commission of the offense.

Prosecution of illegal sales or purchases of wild birds, wild animals and freshwater fish under § 29.1-553 shall commence within three years after commission of the offense.

Prosecution of violations under Title 58.1 for offenses involving false or fraudulent statements, documents or returns, or for the offense of willfully attempting in any manner to evade or defeat any tax or the payment thereof, or for the offense of willfully failing to pay any tax, or willfully failing to make any return at the time or times required by law or regulations shall commence within three years next after the commission of the offense, unless a longer period is otherwise prescribed.

Prosecution of violations of subsection A or B of § 3.2-6570 shall commence within five years of the commission of the offense, except violations regarding agricultural animals shall commence within one year of the commission of the offense.

A prosecution for a violation of § 18.2-386.1 shall be commenced within five years of the commission of the offense.

A prosecution for any violation of the Campaign Finance Disclosure Act, Chapter 9.3 (§ 24.2-945 et seq.) of Title 24.2, shall commence within one year of the discovery of the offense but in no case more than three years after the date of the commission of the offense.

A prosecution of a crime that is punishable as a misdemeanor pursuant to the Virginia Computer Crimes Act (§ 18.2-152.1 et seq.) or pursuant to § 18.2-186.3 for identity theft shall be commenced before the earlier of (i) five years after the commission of the last act in the course of conduct constituting a violation of the article or (ii) one year after the existence of the illegal act and the identity of the offender are discovered by the Commonwealth, by the owner, or by anyone else who is damaged by such violation.

A prosecution of a misdemeanor under § 18.2-64.2, 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-67.5, or 18.2-370.6 where the victim is a minor at the time of the offense shall be commenced no later than one year after the victim reaches majority, unless the alleged offender of such offense was an adult and more than three years older than the victim at the time of the offense, in which instance such prosecution shall be commenced no later than five years after the victim reaches majority.

A prosecution for a violation of § 18.2-260.1 shall be commenced within three years of the commission of the offense.

Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to any person fleeing from justice or concealing himself within or without the Commonwealth to avoid arrest or be construed to limit the time within which any prosecution may be commenced for desertion of a spouse or child or for neglect or refusal or failure to provide for the support and maintenance of a spouse or child.

§ 19.2-299. Investigations and reports by probation officers in certain cases.

A. When a person is tried in a circuit court (i) upon a charge of assault and battery in violation of § 18.2-57 or 18.2-57.2, stalking in violation of § 18.2-60.3, sexual battery in violation of § 18.2-67.4, attempted sexual battery in violation of § 18.2-67.5, or driving while intoxicated in violation of § 18.2-266, and is adjudged guilty of such charge, unless waived by the court and the defendant and the attorney for the Commonwealth, the court may, or on motion of the defendant shall; or (ii) upon a felony charge not set forth in subdivision (iii) below, the court may when there is a plea agreement between the defendant and the Commonwealth and shall, unless waived by the defendant and the attorney for the Commonwealth, when the defendant pleads guilty or nolo contendere without a plea agreement or is found guilty by the court after a plea of not guilty or nolo contendere; or (iii) the court shall when a person is charged and adjudged guilty of a felony violation, or conspiracy to commit or attempt to commit a felony violation, of § 18.2-46.2, 18.2-46.3, 18.2-48, clause (2) or (3) of § 18.2-49, § 18.2-61, 18.2-63, 18.2-64.1, 18.2-64.2, 18.2-67.1, 18.2-67.2, 18.2-67.3, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.5, 18.2-67.5:1, 18.2-355, 18.2-356, 18.2-357, 18.2-361, 18.2-362, 18.2-366, 18.2-368, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.1, or 18.2-370.2, or any attempt to commit or conspiracy to commit any felony violation of § 18.2-67.5, 18.2-67.5:2, or 18.2-67.5:3, direct a probation officer of such court to thoroughly investigate and report upon the history of the accused, including a report of the accused's criminal record as an adult and available juvenile court records, any information regarding the accused's participation or membership in a criminal street gang as defined in § 18.2-46.1, and all other relevant facts, to fully advise the court so the court may determine the appropriate sentence to be imposed. Unless the defendant or the attorney for the Commonwealth objects, the court may order that the report contain no more than the defendant's criminal history, any history of substance abuse, any physical or health-related problems as may be pertinent, and any applicable sentencing guideline worksheets. This expedited report shall be subject to all the same procedures as all other sentencing reports and sentencing guidelines worksheets. The probation officer, after having furnished a copy of this report at least five days prior to sentencing to counsel for the accused and the attorney for the Commonwealth for their permanent use, shall submit his report in advance of the sentencing hearing to the judge in chambers, who shall keep such report confidential. Counsel for the accused may provide the accused with a copy of the presentence report. The probation officer shall be available to testify from this report in open court in the presence of the accused, who shall have been provided with a copy of the presentence report by his counsel or advised of its contents and be given the right to cross-examine the investigating officer as to any matter contained therein and to present any additional facts bearing upon the matter. The report of the investigating officer shall at all times be kept confidential by each recipient, and shall be filed as a part of the record in the case. Any report so filed shall be made available only by court order and shall be sealed upon final order by the court, except that such reports or copies thereof shall be available at any time to any criminal justice agency, as defined in § 9.1-101, of this or any other state or of the United States; to any agency where the accused is referred for treatment by the court or by probation and parole services; and to counsel for any person who has been indicted jointly for the same felony as the person subject to the report. Subject to the limitations set forth in § 37.2-901, any report prepared pursuant to the provisions hereof shall without court order be made available to counsel for the person who is the subject of the report if that person (a) is charged with a felony subsequent to the time of the preparation of the report or (b) has been convicted of the crime or crimes for which the report was prepared and is pursuing a post-conviction remedy. Such report shall be made available for review without a court order to incarcerated persons who are eligible for release by the Virginia Parole Board, or such person's counsel, pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Virginia Parole Board for that purpose. The presentence report shall be in a form prescribed by the Department of Corrections. In all cases where such report is not ordered, a simplified report shall be prepared on a form prescribed by the Department of Corrections. For the purposes of this subsection, information regarding the accused's participation or membership in a criminal street gang may include the characteristics, specific rivalries, common practices, social customs and behavior, terminology, and types of crimes that are likely to be committed by that criminal street gang.

B. As a part of any presentence investigation conducted pursuant to subsection A when the offense for which the defendant was convicted was a felony, the court probation officer shall advise any victim of such offense in writing that he may submit to the Virginia Parole Board a written request (i) to be given the opportunity to submit to the Board a written statement in advance of any parole hearing describing the impact of the offense upon him and his opinion regarding the defendant's release and (ii) to receive copies of such other notifications pertaining to the defendant as the Board may provide pursuant to subsection B of § 53.1-155.

C. As part of any presentence investigation conducted pursuant to subsection A when the offense for which the defendant was convicted was a felony drug offense set forth in Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2, the presentence report shall include any known association of the defendant with illicit drug operations or markets.

D. As a part of any presentence investigation conducted pursuant to subsection A, when the offense for which the defendant was convicted was a felony, not a capital offense, committed on or after January 1, 2000, the defendant shall be required to undergo a substance abuse screening pursuant to § 18.2-251.01.

§ 19.2-310.2. Blood, saliva, or tissue sample required for DNA analysis upon conviction of certain crimes; fee.

A. Every person convicted of a felony on or after July 1, 1990, every person convicted of a felony offense under Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2 who was incarcerated on July 1, 1989, and every person convicted of a misdemeanor violation of § 16.1-253.2, 18.2-57, 18.2-60.3, 18.2-60.4, or 18.2-67.4, former § 18.2-67.4:1, § 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-67.5, 18.2-102, 18.2-119, 18.2-121, 18.2-130, 18.2-370.6, 18.2-387, or 18.2-387.1, or subsection E of § 18.2-460 or of any similar ordinance of any locality shall have a sample of his blood, saliva, or tissue taken for DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) analysis to determine identification characteristics specific to the person. If a sample has been previously taken from the person as indicated by the Local Inmate Data System (LIDS), no additional sample shall be taken. The Department of Forensic Science shall provide to LIDS the most current information submitted to the DNA data bank on a weekly basis and shall remove from LIDS and the data bank persons no longer eligible to be in the data bank. A fee of $53 shall be charged for the withdrawal of this sample. The fee shall be taxed as part of the costs of the criminal case resulting in the conviction and $15 of the fee shall be paid into the general fund of the locality where the sample was taken and $38 of the fee shall be paid into the general fund of the state treasury. This fee shall only be taxed one time regardless of the number of samples taken. The assessment provided for herein shall be in addition to any other fees prescribed by law. The analysis shall be performed by the Department of Forensic Science or other entity designated by the Department. The identification characteristics of the profile resulting from the DNA analysis shall be stored and maintained by the Department in a DNA data bank and shall be made available only as provided in § 19.2-310.5.

B. After July 1, 1990, the blood, saliva, or tissue sample shall be taken prior to release from custody. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 53.1-159, any person convicted of an offense listed in subsection A who is in custody after July 1, 1990, shall provide a blood, saliva, or tissue sample prior to his release. Every person so convicted after July 1, 1990, who is not sentenced to a term of confinement shall provide a blood, saliva, or tissue sample as a condition of such sentence. A person required under this section to submit a sample for DNA analysis is not relieved from this requirement regardless of whether no blood, saliva, or tissue sample has been taken from the person or, if a sample has been taken, whether the sample or the results from the analysis of a sample cannot be found in the DNA data bank maintained by the Department of Forensic Science.

C. Nothing in this section shall prevent the Department of Forensic Science from including the identification characteristics of an individual's DNA profile in the DNA data bank as ordered by a circuit court pursuant to a lawful plea agreement.

D. A collection or placement of a sample for DNA analysis that was taken or retained in good faith does not invalidate the sample's use in the data bank pursuant to the provisions of this article. The detention, arrest, or conviction of a person based upon a data bank match or data bank information is not invalidated if it is determined that the sample was obtained, placed, or retained in the data bank in good faith, or if the conviction or juvenile adjudication that resulted in the collection of the DNA sample was subsequently vacated or otherwise altered in any future proceeding, including but not limited to post-trial or post-fact-finding motions, appeals, or collateral attacks.

E. The Virginia Department of Corrections and the Department of Forensic Science shall, on a quarterly basis, compare databases of offenders under the custody or supervision of the Department of Corrections with the DNA data bank of the Department of Forensic Science. The Virginia Department of Corrections shall require a DNA sample of those offenders under its custody or supervision if they are not identified in the DNA data bank.

F. The Department of State Police shall verify that a DNA sample required to be taken for the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-903 has been received by the Department of Forensic Science. In any instance where a DNA sample has not been received, the Department of State Police or its designee shall obtain from the person required to register a sample for DNA analysis.

G. Each community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174 shall determine by reviewing the Local Inmate Data System upon intake and again prior to discharge whether a blood, saliva, or tissue sample has been taken for DNA analysis for each offender required to submit a sample pursuant to this section and, if no sample has been taken, require an offender to submit a sample for DNA analysis.

H. The sheriff or regional jailer shall determine by reviewing the Local Inmate Data System upon intake and again prior to release whether a blood, saliva, or tissue sample has been taken for DNA analysis for each offender required to submit a sample pursuant to this section and, if no sample has been taken, require an offender to submit a sample for DNA analysis.

§ 19.2-392.02. (Effective until July 1, 2021) National criminal background checks by businesses and organizations regarding employees or volunteers providing care to children or the elderly or disabled.

A. For purposes of this section:

"Barrier crime" means (i) a felony violation of § 16.1-253.2; any violation of § 18.2-31, 18.2-32, 18.2-32.1, 18.2-32.2, 18.2-33, 18.2-35, 18.2-36, 18.2-36.1, 18.2-36.2, 18.2-41, or 18.2-42; any felony violation of § 18.2-46.2, 18.2-46.3, 18.2-46.3:1, or 18.2-46.3:3; any violation of § 18.2-46.5, 18.2-46.6, or 18.2-46.7; any violation of subsection A or B of § 18.2-47; any violation of § 18.2-48, 18.2-49, or 18.2-50.3; any violation of § 18.2-51, 18.2-51.1, 18.2-51.2, 18.2-51.3, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-51.5, 18.2-51.6, 18.2-52, 18.2-52.1, 18.2-53, 18.2-53.1, 18.2-54.1, 18.2-54.2, 18.2-55, 18.2-55.1, 18.2-56, 18.2-56.1, 18.2-56.2, 18.2-57, 18.2-57.01, 18.2-57.02, 18.2-57.2, 18.2-58, 18.2-58.1, 18.2-59, 18.2-60, or 18.2-60.1; any felony violation of § 18.2-60.3 or 18.2-60.4; any violation of § 18.2-61, 18.2-63, 18.2-64.1, 18.2-64.2, 18.2-67.1, 18.2-67.2, 18.2-67.3, 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-67.5, 18.2-67.5:1, 18.2-67.5:2, 18.2-67.5:3, 18.2-77, 18.2-79, 18.2-80, 18.2-81, 18.2-82, 18.2-83, 18.2-84, 18.2-85, 18.2-86, 18.2-87, 18.2-87.1, or 18.2-88; any felony violation of § 18.2-279, 18.2-280, 18.2-281, 18.2-282, 18.2-282.1, 18.2-286.1, or 18.2-287.2; any violation of § 18.2-289, 18.2-290, 18.2-300, 18.2-308.4, or 18.2-314; any felony violation of § 18.2-346, 18.2-348, or 18.2-349; any violation of § 18.2-355, 18.2-356, 18.2-357, or 18.2-357.1; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-361; any violation of § 18.2-366, 18.2-369, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.1, 18.2-370.2, 18.2-370.3, 18.2-370.4, 18.2-370.5, 18.2-370.6, 18.2-371.1, 18.2-374.1, 18.2-374.1:1, 18.2-374.3, 18.2-374.4, 18.2-379, 18.2-386.1, or 18.2-386.2; any felony violation of § 18.2-405 or 18.2-406; any violation of § 18.2-408, 18.2-413, 18.2-414, 18.2-423, 18.2-423.01, 18.2-423.1, 18.2-423.2, 18.2-433.2, 18.2-472.1, 18.2-474.1, 18.2-477, 18.2-477.1, 18.2-477.2, 18.2-478, 18.2-479, 18.2-480, 18.2-481, 18.2-484, 18.2-485, 37.2-917, or 53.1-203; or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (ii) any violation of § 18.2-89, 18.2-90, 18.2-91, 18.2-92, 18.2-93, or 18.2-94 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (iii) any felony violation of § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.02, 18.2-248.03, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-248.5, 18.2-251.2, 18.2-251.3, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-258, 18.2-258.02, 18.2-258.1, or 18.2-258.2 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (iv) any felony violation of § 18.2-250 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (v) any offense set forth in § 9.1-902 that results in the person's requirement to register with the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-901, including any finding that a person is not guilty by reason of insanity in accordance with Chapter 11.1 (§ 19.2-182.2 et seq.) of Title 19.2 of an offense set forth in § 9.1-902 that results in the person's requirement to register with the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-901; any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; or any offense for which registration in a sex offender and crimes against minors registry is required under the laws of the jurisdiction where the offender was convicted; or (vi) any other felony not included in clause (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) unless five years have elapsed from the date of the conviction.

"Barrier crime information" means the following facts concerning a person who has been arrested for, or has been convicted of, a barrier crime, regardless of whether the person was a juvenile or adult at the time of the arrest or conviction: full name, race, sex, date of birth, height, weight, fingerprints, a brief description of the barrier crime or offenses for which the person has been arrested or has been convicted, the disposition of the charge, and any other information that may be useful in identifying persons arrested for or convicted of a barrier crime.

"Care" means the provision of care, treatment, education, training, instruction, supervision, or recreation to children or the elderly or disabled.

"Department" means the Department of State Police.

"Employed by" means any person who is employed by, volunteers for, seeks to be employed by, or seeks to volunteer for a qualified entity.

"Identification document" means a document made or issued by or under the authority of the United States government, a state, a political subdivision of a state, a foreign government, political subdivision of a foreign government, an international governmental or an international quasi-governmental organization that, when completed with information concerning a particular individual, is of a type intended or commonly accepted for the purpose of identification of individuals.

"Provider" means a person who (i) is employed by a qualified entity and has, seeks to have, or may have unsupervised access to a child or to an elderly or disabled person to whom the qualified entity provides care; (ii) is a volunteer of a qualified entity and has, seeks to have, or may have unsupervised access to a child to whom the qualified entity provides care; or (iii) owns, operates, or seeks to own or operate a qualified entity.

"Qualified entity" means a business or organization that provides care to children or the elderly or disabled, whether governmental, private, for profit, nonprofit, or voluntary, except organizations exempt pursuant to subdivision A 7 of § 63.2-1715.

B. A qualified entity may request the Department of State Police to conduct a national criminal background check on any provider who is employed by such entity. No qualified entity may request a national criminal background check on a provider until such provider has:

1. Been fingerprinted; and

2. Completed and signed a statement, furnished by the entity, that includes (i) his name, address, and date of birth as it appears on a valid identification document; (ii) a disclosure of whether or not the provider has ever been convicted of or is the subject of pending charges for a criminal offense within or outside the Commonwealth, and if the provider has been convicted of a crime, a description of the crime and the particulars of the conviction; (iii) a notice to the provider that the entity may request a background check; (iv) a notice to the provider that he is entitled to obtain a copy of any background check report, to challenge the accuracy and completeness of any information contained in any such report, and to obtain a prompt determination as to the validity of such challenge before a final determination is made by the Department; and (v) a notice to the provider that prior to the completion of the background check the qualified entity may choose to deny the provider unsupervised access to children or the elderly or disabled for whom the qualified entity provides care.

C. Upon receipt of (i) a qualified entity's written request to conduct a background check on a provider, (ii) the provider's fingerprints, and (iii) a completed, signed statement as described in subsection B, the Department shall make a determination whether the provider has been convicted of or is the subject of charges of a barrier crime. To conduct its determination regarding the provider's barrier crime information, the Department shall access the national criminal history background check system, which is maintained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation and is based on fingerprints and other methods of identification, and shall access the Central Criminal Records Exchange maintained by the Department. If the Department receives a background report lacking disposition data, the Department shall conduct research in whatever state and local recordkeeping systems are available in order to obtain complete data. The Department shall make reasonable efforts to respond to a qualified entity's inquiry within 15 business days.

D. Any background check conducted pursuant to this section for a provider employed by a private entity shall be screened by the Department of State Police. If the provider has been convicted of or is under indictment for a barrier crime, the qualified entity shall be notified that the provider is not qualified to work or volunteer in a position that involves unsupervised access to children or the elderly or disabled.

E. Any background check conducted pursuant to this section for a provider employed by a governmental entity shall be provided to that entity.

F. In the case of a provider who desires to volunteer at a qualified entity and who is subject to a national criminal background check, the Department and the Federal Bureau of Investigation may each charge the provider the lesser of $18 or the actual cost to the entity of the background check conducted with the fingerprints.

G. The failure to request a criminal background check pursuant to subsection B shall not be considered negligence per se in any civil action.

H. [Expired.]

§ 19.2-392.02. (Effective July 1, 2021) National criminal background checks by businesses and organizations regarding employees or volunteers providing care to children or the elderly or disabled.

A. For purposes of this section:

"Barrier crime" means (i) a felony violation of § 16.1-253.2; any violation of § 18.2-31, 18.2-32, 18.2-32.1, 18.2-32.2, 18.2-33, 18.2-35, 18.2-36, 18.2-36.1, 18.2-36.2, 18.2-41, or 18.2-42; any felony violation of § 18.2-46.2, 18.2-46.3, 18.2-46.3:1, or 18.2-46.3:3; any violation of § 18.2-46.5, 18.2-46.6, or 18.2-46.7; any violation of subsection A or B of § 18.2-47; any violation of § 18.2-48, 18.2-49, or 18.2-50.3; any violation of § 18.2-51, 18.2-51.1, 18.2-51.2, 18.2-51.3, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-51.5, 18.2-51.6, 18.2-52, 18.2-52.1, 18.2-53, 18.2-53.1, 18.2-54.1, 18.2-54.2, 18.2-55, 18.2-55.1, 18.2-56, 18.2-56.1, 18.2-56.2, 18.2-57, 18.2-57.01, 18.2-57.02, 18.2-57.2, 18.2-58, 18.2-58.1, 18.2-59, 18.2-60, or 18.2-60.1; any felony violation of § 18.2-60.3 or 18.2-60.4; any violation of § 18.2-61, 18.2-63, 18.2-64.1, 18.2-64.2, 18.2-67.1, 18.2-67.2, 18.2-67.3, 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-67.5, 18.2-67.5:1, 18.2-67.5:2, 18.2-67.5:3, 18.2-77, 18.2-79, 18.2-80, 18.2-81, 18.2-82, 18.2-83, 18.2-84, 18.2-85, 18.2-86, 18.2-87, 18.2-87.1, or 18.2-88; any felony violation of § 18.2-279, 18.2-280, 18.2-281, 18.2-282, 18.2-282.1, 18.2-286.1, or 18.2-287.2; any violation of § 18.2-289, 18.2-290, 18.2-300, 18.2-308.4, or 18.2-314; any felony violation of § 18.2-346, 18.2-348, or 18.2-349; any violation of § 18.2-355, 18.2-356, 18.2-357, or 18.2-357.1; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-361; any violation of § 18.2-366, 18.2-369, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.1, 18.2-370.2, 18.2-370.3, 18.2-370.4, 18.2-370.5, 18.2-370.6, 18.2-371.1, 18.2-374.1, 18.2-374.1:1, 18.2-374.3, 18.2-374.4, 18.2-379, 18.2-386.1, or 18.2-386.2; any felony violation of § 18.2-405 or 18.2-406; any violation of § 18.2-408, 18.2-413, 18.2-414, 18.2-423, 18.2-423.01, 18.2-423.1, 18.2-423.2, 18.2-433.2, 18.2-472.1, 18.2-474.1, 18.2-477, 18.2-477.1, 18.2-477.2, 18.2-478, 18.2-479, 18.2-480, 18.2-481, 18.2-484, 18.2-485, 37.2-917, or 53.1-203; or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (ii) any violation of § 18.2-89, 18.2-90, 18.2-91, 18.2-92, 18.2-93, or 18.2-94 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (iii) any felony violation of § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.02, 18.2-248.03, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-248.5, 18.2-251.2, 18.2-251.3, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-258, 18.2-258.02, 18.2-258.1, or 18.2-258.2 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (iv) any felony violation of § 18.2-250 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (v) any offense set forth in § 9.1-902 that results in the person's requirement to register with the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-901, including any finding that a person is not guilty by reason of insanity in accordance with Chapter 11.1 (§ 19.2-182.2 et seq.) of Title 19.2 of an offense set forth in § 9.1-902 that results in the person's requirement to register with the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-901; any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; or any offense for which registration in a sex offender and crimes against minors registry is required under the laws of the jurisdiction where the offender was convicted; or (vi) any other felony not included in clause (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) unless five years have elapsed from the date of the conviction.

"Barrier crime information" means the following facts concerning a person who has been arrested for, or has been convicted of, a barrier crime, regardless of whether the person was a juvenile or adult at the time of the arrest or conviction: full name, race, sex, date of birth, height, weight, fingerprints, a brief description of the barrier crime or offenses for which the person has been arrested or has been convicted, the disposition of the charge, and any other information that may be useful in identifying persons arrested for or convicted of a barrier crime.

"Care" means the provision of care, treatment, education, training, instruction, supervision, or recreation to children or the elderly or disabled.

"Department" means the Department of State Police.

"Employed by" means any person who is employed by, volunteers for, seeks to be employed by, or seeks to volunteer for a qualified entity.

"Identification document" means a document made or issued by or under the authority of the United States government, a state, a political subdivision of a state, a foreign government, political subdivision of a foreign government, an international governmental or an international quasi-governmental organization that, when completed with information concerning a particular individual, is of a type intended or commonly accepted for the purpose of identification of individuals.

"Provider" means a person who (i) is employed by a qualified entity and has, seeks to have, or may have unsupervised access to a child or to an elderly or disabled person to whom the qualified entity provides care; (ii) is a volunteer of a qualified entity and has, seeks to have, or may have unsupervised access to a child to whom the qualified entity provides care; or (iii) owns, operates, or seeks to own or operate a qualified entity.

"Qualified entity" means a business or organization that provides care to children or the elderly or disabled, whether governmental, private, for profit, nonprofit, or voluntary, except organizations exempt pursuant to subdivision A 7 of § 22.1-289.030.

B. A qualified entity may request the Department of State Police to conduct a national criminal background check on any provider who is employed by such entity. No qualified entity may request a national criminal background check on a provider until such provider has:

1. Been fingerprinted; and

2. Completed and signed a statement, furnished by the entity, that includes (i) his name, address, and date of birth as it appears on a valid identification document; (ii) a disclosure of whether or not the provider has ever been convicted of or is the subject of pending charges for a criminal offense within or outside the Commonwealth, and if the provider has been convicted of a crime, a description of the crime and the particulars of the conviction; (iii) a notice to the provider that the entity may request a background check; (iv) a notice to the provider that he is entitled to obtain a copy of any background check report, to challenge the accuracy and completeness of any information contained in any such report, and to obtain a prompt determination as to the validity of such challenge before a final determination is made by the Department; and (v) a notice to the provider that prior to the completion of the background check the qualified entity may choose to deny the provider unsupervised access to children or the elderly or disabled for whom the qualified entity provides care.

C. Upon receipt of (i) a qualified entity's written request to conduct a background check on a provider, (ii) the provider's fingerprints, and (iii) a completed, signed statement as described in subsection B, the Department shall make a determination whether the provider has been convicted of or is the subject of charges of a barrier crime. To conduct its determination regarding the provider's barrier crime information, the Department shall access the national criminal history background check system, which is maintained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation and is based on fingerprints and other methods of identification, and shall access the Central Criminal Records Exchange maintained by the Department. If the Department receives a background report lacking disposition data, the Department shall conduct research in whatever state and local recordkeeping systems are available in order to obtain complete data. The Department shall make reasonable efforts to respond to a qualified entity's inquiry within 15 business days.

D. Any background check conducted pursuant to this section for a provider employed by a private entity shall be screened by the Department of State Police. If the provider has been convicted of or is under indictment for a barrier crime, the qualified entity shall be notified that the provider is not qualified to work or volunteer in a position that involves unsupervised access to children or the elderly or disabled.

E. Any background check conducted pursuant to this section for a provider employed by a governmental entity shall be provided to that entity.

F. In the case of a provider who desires to volunteer at a qualified entity and who is subject to a national criminal background check, the Department and the Federal Bureau of Investigation may each charge the provider the lesser of $18 or the actual cost to the entity of the background check conducted with the fingerprints.

G. The failure to request a criminal background check pursuant to subsection B shall not be considered negligence per se in any civil action.

H. [Expired.]

§ 32.1-291.16. Sale or purchase of parts prohibited; penalty.

A. With the exception of hair, ova, blood, and other self-replicating body fluids, it shall be unlawful for any person to sell, to offer to sell, to buy, to offer to buy, or to procure through purchase any natural body part for any reason including, but not limited to, medical and scientific uses such as transplantation, implantation, infusion, or injection. Any person engaging in any of these prohibited activities shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

B. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the reimbursement of reasonable expenses associated with the removal, processing, preservation, quality control, storage, transportation, implantation, or disposal of a part.

C. This section shall not be construed to prohibit the donation of any organs, tissues, or any natural body part, knowing that the donor is, or was, infected with a sexually transmitted infection, for use in medical or scientific research.

D. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, this section shall not prohibit the donation or acquisition of organs for transplantation, provided that (i) the recipient of such organ is informed that such organ is infected with human immunodeficiency virus and, following such notice, consents to the receipt of such organ and (ii) acquisition and transplantation of such organ is in compliance with the provisions of the HIV Organ Policy Equity Act, 42 U.S.C. § 274f-5.

§ 54.1-2982. Definitions.

As used in this article:

"Advance directive" means (i) a witnessed written document, voluntarily executed by the declarant in accordance with the requirements of § 54.1-2983 or (ii) a witnessed oral statement, made by the declarant subsequent to the time he is diagnosed as suffering from a terminal condition and in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2983.

"Agent" means an adult appointed by the declarant under an advance directive, executed or made in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2983, to make health care decisions for him. The declarant may also appoint an adult to make, after the declarant's death, an anatomical gift of all or any part of his body pursuant to Article 2 (§ 32.1-289.2 § 32.1-291.1 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1.

"Attending physician" means the primary physician who has responsibility for the health care of the patient.

"Capacity reviewer" means a licensed physician or clinical psychologist who is qualified by training or experience to assess whether a person is capable or incapable of making an informed decision.

"Declarant" means an adult who makes an advance directive, as defined in this article, while capable of making and communicating an informed decision.

"Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order" means a written physician's order issued pursuant to § 54.1-2987.1 to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation from a particular patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. For purposes of this article, cardiopulmonary resuscitation shall include cardiac compression, endotracheal intubation and other advanced airway management, artificial ventilation, and defibrillation and related procedures. As the terms "advance directive" and "Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order" are used in this article, a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order is not and shall not be construed as an advance directive.

"Health care" means the furnishing of services to any individual for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing, or healing human illness, injury or physical disability, including but not limited to, medications; surgery; blood transfusions; chemotherapy; radiation therapy; admission to a hospital, nursing home, assisted living facility, or other health care facility; psychiatric or other mental health treatment; and life-prolonging procedures and palliative care.

"Health care provider" shall have the same meaning as provided in § 8.01-581.1.

"Incapable of making an informed decision" means the inability of an adult patient, because of mental illness, intellectual disability, or any other mental or physical disorder that precludes communication or impairs judgment, to make an informed decision about providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawing a specific health care treatment or course of treatment because he is unable to understand the nature, extent or probable consequences of the proposed health care decision, or to make a rational evaluation of the risks and benefits of alternatives to that decision. For purposes of this article, persons who are deaf, dysphasic or have other communication disorders, who are otherwise mentally competent and able to communicate by means other than speech, shall not be considered incapable of making an informed decision.

"Life-prolonging procedure" means any medical procedure, treatment or intervention which (i) utilizes mechanical or other artificial means to sustain, restore or supplant a spontaneous vital function, or is otherwise of such a nature as to afford a patient no reasonable expectation of recovery from a terminal condition and (ii) when applied to a patient in a terminal condition, would serve only to prolong the dying process. The term includes artificially administered hydration and nutrition. However, nothing in this act shall prohibit the administration of medication or the performance of any medical procedure deemed necessary to provide comfort care or to alleviate pain, including the administration of pain relieving medications in excess of recommended dosages in accordance with §§ 54.1-2971.01 and 54.1-3408.1. For purposes of §§ 54.1-2988, 54.1-2989, and 54.1-2991, the term also shall include cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

"Patient care consulting committee" means a committee duly organized by a facility licensed to provide health care under Title 32.1 or Title 37.2, or a hospital or nursing home as defined in § 32.1-123 owned or operated by an agency of the Commonwealth that is exempt from licensure pursuant to § 32.1-124, to consult on health care issues only as authorized in this article. Each patient care consulting committee shall consist of five individuals, including at least one physician, one person licensed or holding a multistate licensure privilege under Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et seq.) to practice professional nursing, and one individual responsible for the provision of social services to patients of the facility. At least one committee member shall have experience in clinical ethics and at least two committee members shall have no employment or contractual relationship with the facility or any involvement in the management, operations, or governance of the facility, other than serving on the patient care consulting committee. A patient care consulting committee may be organized as a subcommittee of a standing ethics or other committee established by the facility or may be a separate and distinct committee. Four members of the patient care consulting committee shall constitute a quorum of the patient care consulting committee.

"Persistent vegetative state" means a condition caused by injury, disease or illness in which a patient has suffered a loss of consciousness, with no behavioral evidence of self-awareness or awareness of surroundings in a learned manner, other than reflex activity of muscles and nerves for low level conditioned response, and from which, to a reasonable degree of medical probability, there can be no recovery.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth of Virginia or in the jurisdiction where the health care is to be rendered or withheld.

"Qualified advance directive facilitator" means a person who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Department of Health for providing assistance in completing and executing a written advance directive, including successful demonstration of competence in assisting a person in completing and executing a valid advance directive and successful passage of a written examination.

"Terminal condition" means a condition caused by injury, disease or illness from which, to a reasonable degree of medical probability a patient cannot recover and (i) the patient's death is imminent or (ii) the patient is in a persistent vegetative state.

"Witness" means any person over the age of 18, including a spouse or blood relative of the declarant. Employees of health care facilities and physician's offices, who act in good faith, shall be permitted to serve as witnesses for purposes of this article.

§ 54.1-2983. Procedure for making advance directive; notice to physician.

Any adult capable of making an informed decision may, at any time, make a written advance directive to address any or all forms of health care in the event the declarant is later determined to be incapable of making an informed decision. A written advance directive shall be signed by the declarant in the presence of two subscribing witnesses and may (i) specify the health care the declarant does or does not authorize; (ii) appoint an agent to make health care decisions for the declarant; and (iii) specify an anatomical gift, after the declarant's death, of all of the declarant's body or an organ, tissue or eye donation pursuant to Article 2 (§ 32.1-289.2 § 32.1-291.1 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1. A written advance directive may be submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry, pursuant to Article 9 (§ 54.1-2994 et seq.).

Further, any adult capable of making an informed decision who has been diagnosed by his attending physician as being in a terminal condition may make an oral advance directive (i) directing the specific health care the declarant does or does not authorize in the event the declarant is incapable of making an informed decision, and (ii) appointing an agent to make health care decisions for the declarant under the circumstances stated in the advance directive if the declarant should be determined to be incapable of making an informed decision. An oral advance directive shall be made in the presence of the attending physician and two witnesses.

An advance directive may authorize an agent to take any lawful actions necessary to carry out the declarant's decisions, including, but not limited to, granting releases of liability to medical providers, releasing medical records, and making decisions regarding who may visit the patient.

It shall be the responsibility of the declarant to provide for notification to his attending physician that an advance directive has been made. If an advance directive has been submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry pursuant to Article 9 (§ 54.1-2994 et seq.), it shall be the responsibility of the declarant to provide his attending physician, legal representative, or other person with the information necessary to access the advance directive. In the event the declarant is comatose, incapacitated or otherwise mentally or physically incapable of communication, any other person may notify the physician of the existence of an advance directive and, if applicable, the fact that it has been submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry. An attending physician who is so notified shall promptly make the advance directive or a copy of the advance directive, if written, or the fact of the advance directive, if oral, a part of the declarant's medical records.

In the event that any portion of an advance directive is invalid or illegal, such invalidity or illegality shall not affect the remaining provisions of the advance directive.

§ 57-48. Definitions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

"Charitable organization" means any person that is or holds itself out to be organized or operated for any charitable purpose, or any person that solicits or obtains contributions solicited from the public. "Charitable organization" does not include (i) any church or convention or association of churches, primarily operated for nonsecular purposes and no part of the net income of which inures to the direct benefit of any individual; (ii) any political party as defined in § 24.2-101 or any political campaign committee or political action committee or other political committee required by state or federal law to file a report or statement of contributions and expenditures; or (iii) any authorized individual who solicits, by authority of such organization, solely on behalf of a registered or exempt charitable organization or on behalf of an organization excluded from the definition of charitable organization.

"Charitable purpose" means any charitable, benevolent, humane, philanthropic, patriotic, or eleemosynary purpose and the purposes of influencing legislation or influencing the actions of any public official or instigating, prosecuting, or intervening in litigation.

"Charitable sales promotion" means advertised sales that feature the names of both the commercial co-venturer and the charitable or civic organization and that state that the purchase or use of the goods, services, entertainment, or any other thing of value that the commercial co-venturer normally sells will benefit the charitable or civic organization or its purposes. To qualify as a charitable sales promotion, the consumer must pay the same price for the thing of value as the commercial co-venturer usually charges without the charitable sales promotion and the consumer retains the thing of value.

"Civic organization" means any local service club, veterans post, fraternal society or association, volunteer fire or rescue group, or local civic league or association of 10 or more persons not organized for profit but operated exclusively for educational or charitable purposes as defined in this section, including the promotion of community welfare, and the net earnings of which are devoted exclusively to charitable, educational, recreational, or social welfare purposes.

"Commercial co-venturer" means any person who (i) is organized for profit, (ii) is regularly and primarily engaged in trade or commerce, other than in connection with soliciting for charitable or civic organizations or charitable purposes, and (iii) conducts an advertised charitable sales promotion for a specified limited period of time.

"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services or a member of his staff to whom he may delegate his duties under this chapter.

"Contribution" means any gift, bequest, devise, or other grant of any money, credit, financial assistance, or property of any kind or value, including the promise to contribute, except payments by the membership of an organization for membership fees, dues, fines, or assessments, or for services rendered to individual members, and except money, credit, financial assistance, or property received from any governmental authority. "Contribution" does not include any donation of blood or any gift made pursuant to Article 2 (§ 32.1-289.2 § 32.1-291.1 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1.

"Department" means the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

"Federated fund-raising organization" means any federation of independent charitable organizations that have voluntarily joined together, including but not limited to a United Fund or Community Chest, for purposes of raising and distributing money for and among themselves and where membership does not confer operating authority and control of the individual agencies upon the federated group organization.

"File with the Commissioner" means depositing the originals of the documents required to be filed, along with the payment of the appropriate fee and all supporting documents with the Department or submitting the required documents and any appropriate attachments and fees by utilizing an online filing system approved by the Commissioner.

"Fund-raising expenses" means the expenses of all activities that constitute or are an integral and inseparable part of a solicitation.

"Membership" means those persons to whom, for payment of fees, dues, assessments, etc., an organization provides services and confers a bona fide right, privilege, professional standing, honor, or other direct benefit, in addition to the right to vote, elect officers, or hold offices. "Membership" does not include those persons who are granted a membership upon making a contribution as the result of solicitation.

"Parent organization" means that part of a charitable organization that coordinates, supervises, or exercises control over policy, fund raising, and expenditures or assists or advises one or more chapters, branches, or affiliates.

"Person" means any individual, organization, trust, foundation, association, partnership, corporation, society, or other group or combination acting as a unit.

"Professional fund-raising counsel" means any person who for a flat fixed fee under a written agreement plans, conducts, manages, carries on, advises, or acts as a consultant, whether directly or indirectly, in connection with soliciting contributions for, or on behalf of, any charitable or civic organization, but who actually solicits no contributions as a part of such services. A bona fide salaried officer or employee of a registered or exempt charitable organization or the bona fide salaried officer or employee of a registered parent organization shall not be deemed to be a professional fund-raising counsel.

"Professional solicitor" means any person who, for a financial or other consideration, solicits contributions for, or on behalf of, a charitable or civic organization, whether such solicitation is performed personally or through his agents, servants, or employees or through agents, servants, or employees who are specially employed by or for a charitable or civic organization and are engaged in the solicitation of contributions under the direction of such person or any person who, for a financial or other consideration, plans, conducts, manages, carries on, advises, or acts as a consultant to a charitable or civic organization in connection with the solicitation of contributions but does not qualify as a professional fund-raising counsel. A bona fide salaried officer or employee of a registered or exempt charitable organization or a bona fide salaried officer or employee of a registered parent organization shall not be deemed to be a professional solicitor.

"Sale," "sell," and "sold" mean the transfer of any property or the rendition of any service to any person in exchange for consideration, including any purported contribution without which such property would not have been transferred or such services would not have been rendered.

"Solicit" and "solicitation" mean the request or appeal, directly or indirectly, for any contribution on the plea or representation that such contribution will be used for a charitable purpose, including, without limitation, the following methods of requesting such contribution:

1. Any oral or written request;

2. Any announcement to the press, over the radio or television, or by telephone or telegraph concerning an appeal or campaign to which the public is requested to make a contribution for any charitable purpose connected therewith;

3. The distribution, circulation, posting, or publishing of any handbill, written advertisement, or other publication that directly or by implication seeks to obtain public support; or

4. The sale of, offer, or attempt to sell, any advertisement, advertising space, subscription, ticket, or any service or tangible item in connection with which any appeal is made for any charitable purpose or where the name of any charitable or civic organization is used or referred to in any such appeal as an inducement or reason for making any such sale, or when or where in connection with any such sale, any statement is made that the whole or any part of the proceeds from any such sale will be donated to any charitable purpose.

"Solicitation," as defined in this section, shall be deemed to occur when the request is made, at the place the request is received, whether or not the person making the same actually receives any contribution.

"Terrorists and terrorist organizations" means any person, organization, group, or conspiracy who assists or has assisted terrorist organizations, as provided in 18 U.S.C. § 2339B, or who commits or attempts to commit acts of terrorism, as defined in § 18.2-46.4.

2. That §§ 18.2-62, 18.2-67.4:1, and 32.1-289.2 of the Code of Virginia are repealed.